What's the first wrong statement in the proof below that $ \triangle BDE \cong \triangle BCE$ $ \; ?$ $ \overline{BC} $ is parallel to $ \overline{DF} $. This diagram is not drawn to scale. $A$ $B$ $C$ $D$ $E$ $F$ Givens $ \overline{CF} \cong \overline{BD}$ $, \ $ $ \angle CFE \cong \angle DBE$ $, \ $ $ \overline{EF} \cong \overline{BE}$ $, \ $ $ \overline{AB} \cong \overline{BE}$ $, \ $ $ \angle BAC \cong \angle BED$ $, \ $ and $\ $ $ \angle ACB \cong \angle BDE$ Proof $ \triangle BDE \cong \triangle FCE$ because SAS $ \overline{DE} \cong \overline{CE}$ because corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent $ \overline{BD} \cong \overline{AF}$ because corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent $ \angle CEF \cong \angle BCE$ because alternate interior angles are equal $ \triangle BDE \cong \triangle BCA$ because AAS $ \triangle BDE \cong \triangle BCE$ because SSS
Try going through the proof yourself: write down the givens, and then see if they justify the next step for the reason given. Then do the same thing for the next step, and the next, until you run into something that you can't justify, or you finish the proof. $ \overline{AF} \cong \overline{BD}$ is the first wrong statement.